SSC CHSL Syllabus

SSC CHSL Syllabus 2020

SSC CHSL exam has three different phases that candidates need to clear to get selected for various posts in the Government Offices. SSC CHSL Tier I is Objective Multiple Choice Question paper, Tier II exam is Descriptive Paper in English/Hindi, while Tier III is the Computer Proficiency Test.

TierTypeMode
Tier – IObjective Multiple ChoiceComputer Based (online)
Tier – IIDescriptive Paper in English/HindiPen and Paper Mode (Letter/Application Writing, Essay Writing)
Tier – IIISkill Test/Computer Proficiency TestWherever Applicable (Speed Typing Test)

SSC CHSL Tier-I Exam Pattern

SectionSubjectNo of QuestionsMax MarksExam Duration
1General Intelligence255060 minutes (80 Minutes for PWD candidates)
2General Awareness2550
3Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill)2550
4English Language (Basic Knowledge)2550
Total100200

The SSC CHSL Tier I exam is a computer-based online test (CBT) exam conducted online. Candidates are given a total of 60 minutes to solve SSC CHSL Tier-I paper comprising 100 questions that count to a total of 200 marks (2 marks each question). For each wrong attempt, candidates are penalised with 1/2 marks in Tier-1 exam.

SSC CHSL Syllabus for Tier-I Exam

SSC CHSL is conducted in three different levels, the syllabus of all the three levels is different. All candidates must be well-informed about the latest changes (if introduced any) in SSC CHSL syllabus and exam pattern to prepare for SSC CHSL 2020.

There are 4 secctions in Tier I of SSC CHSL exam which are given below:

  • Reasoning Ability
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • English Language
  • General Awareness

SSC CHSL Tier-I Syllabus

SSC CHSL Tier-I Syllabus comprises of 4 subjects which are: English Language, Quantitative Aptitude,General Intelligence: & General Awareness. The subject wise topics for SSC CHSL 2020 Tier-I exam is given below:

General IntelligenceQuantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill)English Language (Basic Knowledge)General Awareness
Logical ReasoningSimplificationReading ComprehensionHistory
Alphanumeric SeriesProfit & LossCloze TestCulture
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet TestMixtures & AllegationsPara jumblesGeography
Data SufficiencySimple Interest & Compound Interest & Surds & IndicesMiscellaneousEconomic Scene
Coded InequalitiesWork & TimeFill in the blanksGeneral Policy
Seating ArrangementTime & DistanceMultiple Meaning/Error SpottingScientific Research
PuzzleMensuration – Cylinder, Cone, SphereParagraph CompletionAwards and Honors
TabulationData InterpretationOne Word SubstitutionBooks and Authors
SyllogismRatio & Proportion, PercentageActive/Passive Voice 
Blood RelationsNumber Systems  
Input OutputSequence & Series  
Coding DecodingPermutation, Combination & Probability  

The detailed SSC CHSL Syllabus for Computer Based Examination (Tier-I) is discussed below:

General Awareness Syllabus for SSC CHSL

Questions from General Awareness section are designed to test the candidate’s general knowledge of the environment around him and its 14 application to society. Questions are also designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General policy, Static Awareness, Indian GK and scientific research.

General Intelligence Syllabus for SSC CHSL

This section includes questions of both verbal and non-verbal reasoning. The questions will be asked from Semantic Analogy, Symbolic operations, Symbolic/ Number Analogy, Trends, Figural Analogy, Space Orientation, Semantic Classification, Venn Diagrams, Number Series, Embedded figures, Figural Series, Critical Thinking, Problem Solving, Symbolic/ Number Classification, Drawing inferences, Figural Classification, Punched hole/ patternfolding & unfolding, Semantic Series, Figural Pattern-folding and completion, Emotional Intelligence, Word Building, Social Intelligence, Coding and de-coding, Other subtopics, if any Numerical operations.

English Language Syllabus for SSC CHSL

The English Language questions will be asked from following topics: Spot the Error, Fill in the Blanks, Synonyms/ Homonyms, Antonyms, Spellings/ Detecting mis-spelt words, Idioms & Phrases, One word substitution, Improvement of Sentences, Active/ Passive Voice of Verbs, Conversion into Direct/Indirect narration, Shuffling of Sentence parts, Shuffling of Sentences in a passage, Cloze Passage, Comprehension Passage.

Quantitative Aptitude Syllabus for SSC CHSL

Number Systems: Computation of Whole Number, Decimal and Fractions, Relationship between numbers.

Fundamental arithmetical operations: Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest (Simple and Compound), Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Allegation, Time and distance, Time and work.

Mensuration: Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square Base.

Algebra: Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra and Elementary surds (simple problems) and Graphs of Linear Equations.

Geometry: Familiarity with elementary geometric figures and facts: Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles.

Trigonometry: Trigonometry, Trigonometric ratios, Complementary angles, Height and distances (simple problems only) Standard Identities like sin2 𝜃 + Cos2 𝜃=1 etc.

Statistical Charts: Use of Tables and Graphs: Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar-diagram, Pie-chart.

SSC CHSL Syllabus: Tier II

SSC CHSL Tier II exam is a descriptive paper of 100 marks conducted in Pen and Paper mode only for the candidates who qualified Tier I. There is no negative marking for wrong attempts in SSC CHSL Tier II exam.

The paper will have to be written either in Hindi or in English. Candidates must secure a minimum of 33% marks in order to clear Tier II round of SSC CHSL Exam.

SSC CHSL Tier II Syllabus

SSC CHSL Tier II Syllabus
TopicsWord CountMaximum MarksDuration
Essay Writing200-25010060 minutes
Letter/Application Writing150-20060 minutes

As stated above, this paper calls for candidates to write an essay and Letter/Application that tests their writing skills of the candidates. The essay topics will be related to National Interest, Finance & Economy, Ecological Issues, Politics, Social Issues, Schemes & Governance, Sports, Technology, Geopolitics, Environmental Concerns etc. While, the type of letter/ application asked will be Application, Complaint, Suggestion, Official Appreciation, Follow up or Feedback etc.

SSC CHSL Tier III Syllabus

Tier-III of SSC CHSL 2020 will be a Skill/ Typing Test of qualifying nature. The final merit of the selected candidates will be based on the basis of total score obtained in Tier-I and Tier-II.

Skill test for the post of Data Entry Operator:

In this test, a candidate should have data entry speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour.

Duration of the Test is 15 minutes and English document having about 2000-2200 strokes/key-depressions is given to type.

Skill test for the post of Data Entry Operator in the Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG):

The ‘speed of 15000 key depressions per hour will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/key depressions as per the given passage.

The duration of the test will be for 15 minutes and printed matter in English containing about 3700-4000 key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the test computer.

Skill test for the post of Lower Division Clerk/ Junior Secretariat Assistant (LDS/JSA) and Postal Assistants/ Sorting Assistants (PA/SA):

The speed of 10500 key depressions per hour will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/key depressions as per the given passage.

The duration of the test will be for 15 minutes and printed matter in English containing about 9000 key-depressions/hour would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the test computer.

SSC CGL Syllabus 2020

SSC CGL Syllabus 2020

SSC CGL Syllabus 2020: SSC has released exam dates for all ssc exams to be conducted in 2020. The Preliminary Exam of SSC CGL 2020 was conducted from 3rd to 9th March 2020. The Combined Graduate Level Tier-II & Tier-III Examination is scheduled from 22nd June to 25th June 2020. Candidates who are preparing for this exam have to go through with the latest SSC CGL Syllabus to scale their chances in this exam. A fair knowledge of SSC CGL Syllabus & exam pattern for Tier-I, Tier-II & III Exam is necessary to prepare effectively for this exam. Let’s understand the SSC CGL 2020 Tier I, II, III & IV Syllabus based on latest pattern.

SSC CGL Syllabus: Tier I

The major sections asked in SSC CGL 2020 Preliminary Exam are General Awareness, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and English Language. The detailed syllabus & exam pattern for SSC CGL 2020 exam are mentioned below:

SSC CGL Tier-I Exam Pattern

S No.SectionsNo. of QuestionsTotal MarksTime Allotted
1General Intelligence and Reasoning2550A cumulative time of 60 minutes
2General Awareness2550
3Quantitative Aptitude2550
4English Comprehension2550
Total100200

SSC CGL Tier 1 Syllabus

Quantitative Aptitude Syllabus

Quantitative Aptitude questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work,Percentage. Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles.

General Intelligence and Reasoning Syllabus

General Intelligence and Reasoning includes questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc.

The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/ Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/ Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/ pattern- folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern- folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/ numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.

English Syllabus

This section measures Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his/ her basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested. This section may include questions on Phrases and Idioms, One word Substitution, Sentence Correction, Error Spotting, Fill in the Blanks, Spellings Correction, Reading Comprehension, Synonyms-Antonyms, Active Passive, Sentence Rearrangement, Sentence Improvement, Cloze test etc.

General Awareness Syllabus

Questions in this section will be aimed at testing the candidates’ general awareness (GK+GS) of the environment around him and its application to society. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research. The questions will also be asked from Science, Current Affairs, Books and Authors, Sports, Important Schemes, Important Days, Portfolios,People in News etc.

After the preliminary exam has been conducted, it will be necessary to gear up for Mains Exam of SSC CGL 2020 Exam.

SSC CGL Syllabus: Tier II

The Mains Exam will be conducted online and is an objective multiple choice exam. This year, the Tier-II & Tier-III exam will be conducted on same day. The major sections asked in Mains Exam are Quantitative Aptitude, English Language and Comprehension, Statistics, General Studies (Finance and Economics). Let’s have a look at the SSC CGL Syllabus 2020 Mains Exam Pattern & Syllabus.

SSC CGL Tier-II Exam Pattern

S No.SectionsNo. of QuestionsTotal MarksTime Allotted
1Quantitative Ability1002002 hours
2English Language and Comprehension2002002 hours
3Statistics1002002 hours
4General Studies (Finance and Economics)1002002 hours

SSC CGL 2020 Tier-I Result: Check Here

Check SSC CGL Previous Year Cut-Off

SSC CGL Tier 2 Syllabus

Paper-I (Quantitative Abilities) Syllabus:

The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

Paper-II (English Language and Comprehension) Syllabus:

Questions in this section will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in 21 the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/ detecting misspelled words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/ passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/ indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.

Paper-III (Statistics) Syllabus:

1. Collection, Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.

2. Measures of Central Tendency – Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.

3. Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative dispersion.

4. Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.

5. Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman‟s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).

6. Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes‟ theorem.

7. Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial, Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).

8. Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and nonprobability sampling techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions.

9. Statistical Inference – Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.

10. Analysis of Variance – Analysis of one-way classified data and twoway classified data.

11. Time Series Analysis – Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.

12. Index Numbers – Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.

Paper-IV (General Studies-Finance and Economics):

Part A: Finance and Accounts-(80 marks):

Fundamental principles and basic concept of Accounting:

1.1 Financial Accounting: Nature and scope, Limitations of Financial Accounting, Basic concepts and Conventions, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.

1.2 Basic concepts of accounting: Single and double entry, Books of original Entry, Bank Reconciliation, Journal, ledgers, Trial Balance, Rectification of Errors, Manufacturing, Trading, Profit & loss Appropriation Accounts, Balance Sheet Distinction between Capital and Revenue Expenditure, Depreciation Accounting, Valuation of Inventories, Non-profit organisations Accounts, Receipts and Payments and Income & Expenditure Accounts, Bills of Exchange, Self Balancing Ledgers.

Part B: Economics and Governance-(120 marks):

2.1 Comptroller & Auditor General of India- Constitutional provisions, Role and responsibility.

2.2 Finance Commission-Role and functions.

2.3 Basic Concept of Economics and introduction to Micro Economics: Definition, scope and nature of Economics, Methods of economic study and Central problems of an economy and Production possibilities curve.

2.4 Theory of Demand and Supply: Meaning and determinants of demand, Law of demand and Elasticity of demand, Price, income and cross elasticity; Theory of consumer‟s behaviourMarshallian approach and Indifference curve approach, Meaning and determinants of supply, Law of supply and Elasticity of Supply.

2.5 Theory of Production and cost: Meaning and Factors of production, Laws of production- Law of variable proportions and Laws of returns to scale.

2.6 Forms of Market and price determination in different markets: Various forms of markets-Perfect Competition, Monopoly, Monopolistic Competition and Oligopoly ad Price determination in these markets.

2.7 Indian Economy:

2.7.1 Nature of the Indian Economy Role of different sectorsRole of Agriculture, Industry and Services-their problems and growth.

2.7.2 National Income of India-Concepts of national income, Different methods of measuring national income.

2.7.3 Population-Its size, rate of growth and its implication on economic growth.

2.7.4 Poverty and unemployment- Absolute and relative poverty, types, causes and incidence of unemployment.

2.7.5 Infrastructure-Energy, Transportation, Communication.

2.8 Economic Reforms in India: Economic reforms since 1991; Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation and Disinvestment.

2.9 Money and Banking:

2.9.1 Monetary/ Fiscal policy- Role and functions of Reserve Bank of India; functions of commercial Banks/RRB/Payment Banks.

2.9.2 Budget and Fiscal deficits and Balance of payments.

2.9.3 Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

2.10 Role of Information Technology in Governance.

Note: Questions in Paper-I will be of Matriculation Level, Paper-II of 10+2 Level and in Paper-III and Paper-IV of Graduation Level.

SSC CGL Tier-III Syllabus

Tier-III of SSC CGL 2020 exam is a descriptive exam to test the written skills of the candidates in English/Hindi. The mode of examination is offline (Pen and Paper mode) and students are required to write essays, précis, application, letter etc. in this exam. The exam carries 100 marks and the time allotted for the same is 60 minutes. The time allotted for candidates belonging to PWD category is increased to 80 minutes. Tier-III paper is given by specific candidates who are interested only for the post of “Statistical Investigator Grade II” & “Compiler”.

SSC CGL Tier-III Exam Pattern

SubjectMarksTime
Descriptive Paper in English/Hindi (Writing of Essay, Precis, Letter, Application etc.)100 marks1 hour or 60 minutes

SSC CGL Tier-IV Syllabus

Tier-IV examination comprises of couple of skill sets required for certain Government Posts all over the country.

DEST (Data Entry Speed Test): For the post of Tax Assistant (Central Excise and Income Tax),DEST Exam through SSC CGL 2020 exam is conducted to check the typing speed of the candidate. The candidates are given an article in English which they have to type on Computer. A candidate is required to type 2000 words in 15 minutes.

CPT (Computer Proficiency Test): Word Processing, Spread Sheets and Generation of slides are the three modules that are important for this exam and the commission demands a candidate to be proficient in it for the post of CSS, MEA, Inspector (Central Excise), Inspector (Preventive Officer), Inspector (Examiner).

Tier-I exam is compulsory for all posts mentioned in the SSC CGL 2020 Notification. Candidates will have to prepare for both Tier 2 and Tier 3 exam simultaneously. However, the evaluation of Tier 3 Descriptive exam will be done only if a candidate clears the combined cut off for Tier 1 and Tier 2. So, candidates may appear for both Tier 2 and Tier 3 exams but your Tier 3 answer sheets will be evaluated only if you clear the cut-off. Tier-IV exam is taken by candidates applying specifically for TA, CSS, MEA and Inspector.

Penalty for wrong answers

Giving a wrong answer to a question will lead to deduction of 0.5 marks in Tier – I, III and IV while that of 0.25 marks in Tier-II.

RRB Group D Syllabus

RRB Group D Syllabus 2020 for RRC Level-1

RRB /RRC Group D Level-1 Syllabus 2020: The Railway Recruitment Board (RRBs) has released the RRC Group D Level-1 2019-20 notification to recruit 1,03,769 vacancies for the posts of Track Maintainer Grade-IV, Helper/Assistant, Assistant Pointsman, Level-I posts in Indian Railways. A total of around 1.3 lakh vacancies have been announced by RRB this year.

With the release of Railway Recruitment Board (RRBs) also published the latest exam pattern and syllabus for RRB/RRC Group D Level-I 2020 exam. The questions will be based on following mentioned RRC Group D syllabus exam pattern. Thus, we’re providing you with RRB Group D topic-wise syllabus along with exam pattern. To ace RRC Group D Level-1 2020 Exam, it is necessary to know the Exam pattern and detailed syllabus of RRB Group D exam. This will help you to prepare judiciously for RRC Group D Level-1 2020 Exam. Let’s understand the RRB Group D (RRC Level-1) 2020 Exam Pattern & Syllabus.

RRB Group D Syllabus 2020:

The RRC/ RRB Group D Recruitment process will involve the following stages of examination:

  • 1. Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • 2. Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
  • 3. Document Verification and Medical

RRB/RRC Group D Level-1 Exam Pattern 2020 (CBT)

Based on the performance of candidates in the Computer Based Test(CBT), they would be required to go for the PET/Document Verification. The examination duration and number of questions for CBT are indicated below:

SubjectsNo. Of QuestionsMarksDuration
General Science252590 Minutes
Mathematics2525
General Intelligence & Reasoning3030
General Awareness On Current Affairs2020
Total100100

RRB Group D Syllabus for RRC Level I

RRB Group D Syllabus Question Type

The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:

a) RRB Group D Syllabus: Mathematics

Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square root, Age Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc.

b) RRB Group D Syllabus: General Intelligence and reasoning

Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations, Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency, Conclusions and Decision making, Similarities and Differences, Analytical Reasoning, Classification, Directions, Statement – Arguments and Assumptions etc.

c) RRB Group D Syllabus: General Science

The syllabus under this shall cover Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences of 10th standard level (CBSE).

d) RRB Group D Syllabus: General Awareness on current affairs

General Awareness on current affairs in Science & Technology, Sports, Culture, Personalities, Economics, Politics and any other subject of importance.

rrb-group-d-syllabus

RRB Group D Exam Pattern for 2nd Stage: PET

Based on the merit of the candidates in the Computer Based Test (CBT), candidates shall be called for Physical Efficiency Test (PET) Three times the community wise total vacancy of the Posts notified against RRBs/RRCs. However, Railways Board reserve the right to increase/decrease this ratio as required to ensure availability of adequate/reasonable number of candidates for all the notified posts. Passing Physical Efficiency Test (PET) is mandatory and the same will be qualifying in nature. The criterion for PET is as under:

Male CandidatesFemale Candidates
Should be able to lift and carry 35 kg of weight for a distance of 100 metres in 2 minutes in one chance without putting the weight downShould be able to lift and carry 20 kg of weight for a distance of 100 metres in 2 minutes in one chance without putting the weight down
Should be able to run for a distance of 1000 metres in 4 minutes and 15 seconds in 1 chanceShould be able to run for a distance of 1000 metres in 5 minutes and 40 seconds in 1 chance

RRB Group D Exam Pattern for 3rd Stage: Document Verification

Based on the performance of candidates in the CBT subject to their qualifying in PET, candidates will be called for document verification.

Shortlisted candidates should produce NOC from the employer on the date of his/her DV failing which their candidature will be cancelled. Signatures of the candidates on all documents should be identical, either in English or Hindi.

RRB NTPC Syllabus 2020


RRB NTPC Syllabus 2020

RRB NTPC Syllabus 2020: The RRB NTPC 2019-20 Recruitment Notification has been released for the posts of Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) by Railway Recruitment Board(RRBs). A total of around 35,277 vacancies have been announced this year. The knowledge of RRB NTPC Syllabus & Exam Pattern is required if a candidate wishes to qualify the upcoming RRB NTPC 2019-20 exam.

In this article, we are covering RRB NTPC Syllabus for Railway NTPC (Non-Technical Popular Categories), Para Medical Staff, Material & Isolated Category and Level-1 Posts. This will help you to prepare for RRB NTPC 2020 Exam. Let’s understand the RRB NTPC 2020 Exam Pattern & Syllabus:

RRB NTPC Syllabus & Exam Pattern

RRB NTPC 2020 Exam will be conducted in two stages i.e. 1st stage(Pelims) and 2nd stage(Mains). The Syllabus for RRB NTPC stage 1 and stage 2 are same. The main change in stage 1 and stage 2 for RRB NTPC exam is exam pattern. RRB NTPC exam will comprise of 3 sections i.e Mathematics (Arithmetic Ability), Reasoning & General Intelligence and General Awareness (General Science). The detailed RRB NTPC Syllabus is mentined below:

RRB NTPC Exam Pattern 2020 CBT I

SectionsNo. of QuestionsTotal MarksDuration
Mathematics303090 minutes
General Intelligence and Reasoning3030
General Awareness4040
Total100100

RRB NTPC Syllabus for Stage I CBT

The total number of 100 questions will be asked in the Stage I exam of RRB NTPC. The Syllabus of RRB NTPC Stage I exam gis given below. CBT The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:

a) RRB NTPC Syllabus: Mathematics

Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics etc.

b) RRB NTPC Syllabus: General Intelligence and Reasoning

Analogies, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.

c) RRB NTPC Syllabus: General Awareness

Current Events of National and International Importance, Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India, Current GK etc.

Cheak free Test series for CBT 1

previous year cut off

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RRB NTPC Exam Pattern 2020 CBT II

SectionsNo. of QuestionsTotal MarksDuration
Mathematics353590 minutes
General Intelligence and Reasoning3535
General Awareness5050
Total120120

RRB NTPC Syllabus for Stage II CBT

The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions pertaining to:

a) Mathematics Syllabus for RRB NTPC

Elementary Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Number System, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportions, Percentage, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss etc.

b) General Intelligence and Reasoning Syllabus for RRB NTPC

Analogies, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement- Courses of Action, Decision Making, Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical Operations, Similarities and Differences, Relationships, Analytical Reasoning, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagrams, Puzzle, Maps, Interpretation of Graphs etc.

b) General Intelligence and Reasoning Syllabus for RRB NTPC

Analogies, Data Sufficiency, Statement- Conclusion, Statement-

c) General Awareness Syllabus for RRB NTPC

Current Events of National and International Importance (Current Affairs), Games and Sports, Art and Culture of India, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places of India, General Science and Life Science (up to 10th CBSE), History of India and Freedom Struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and World, Indian Polity and Governance- constitution and political system, Common Abbreviations, Transport Systems in India, Indian Economy, Famous Personalities of India and World, Flagship Government Programs, General Scientific and Technological Developments including Space and Nuclear Program of India, UN and Other important World Organizations, Environmental Issues Concerning India and World at Large, Basics of Computers and Computer Applications, Flora and Fauna of India, Important Government and Public Sector Organizations of India etc.

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Read the questions carefully then answer the questions there is No negative marking here but u can calculate it by yourself.
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1 / 100

By selling a fan for Rs. 600, a man loses 10%. To make a gain of 20%, the selling price of the fan should be

एक पंखे को 600 रूपए में बेचने पर 10% हानि होती है। तदनुसार, उसे कितने मूल्य पर बेचना चाहिए ताकि उस पर 20% लाभ मिल सके?

2 / 100

If A is 45% of B then B is what percent more than A?

यदि A, B का 45% है तो B, A से कितने प्रतिशत अधिक है?

3 / 100

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

TLMK : QXPQ :: JRDA : ?

4 / 100

The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved by ____.

भारत के उपराष्ट्रपति को हटाने का प्रस्ताव ____ द्वारा स्थानांतरित किया जा सकता है।

5 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

1, 1, 8, 4, 27, 9 ?

6 / 100

From amongst the given alternatives, select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given below.

(7, 12, 22, 37)

7 / 100

Hardness of river water is because it contains.

पानी की कठोरता इसलिए है, क्योंकि इसमें शामिल है।

8 / 100

One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Calculate the probability that the card will be a red Ace.

एक अच्छी तरह से मिलाए हुए 52 ताश के पत्तों में से एक पत्ता निकाला गया। निकाला गया ताश का पत्ता एक लाल इक्का हो इसकी सम्भावना ज्ञात करें।

9 / 100

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Camera, Mobile, Gadgets

1) 2) 3) 4)

10 / 100

Select the correct option from the given series.

A 0, D 5, H 15, M 30, S 50, ?

11 / 100

Direction: In the following question, some statements are followed by some conclusions. Assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the following conclusions follow the given statements and choose appropriate answer choice.
Statements:
All books are ancient.
All moderns are philosophy.
Some books are philosophy.
All history are ancient.
Conclusion:
I. Some ancients are modern
II. All books are history
III. Some philosophy are ancient
IV. No modern is ancient

कथन:
सभी किताब, प्राचीन हैं।
सभी आधुनिक, दर्शन शास्‍त्र हैं।
कुछ किताब, दर्शन शास्‍त्र हैं।
सभी इतिहास, प्राचीन हैं।
निष्‍कर्ष:
I. कुछ प्राचीन, आधुनिक हैं।
II. सभी किताब, इतिहास हैं।
III. कुछ दर्शन शास्‍त्र, प्राचीन हैं।
IV. कोई आधुनिक, प्राचीन नहीं हैं।

12 / 100

Four letter-cluster have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.

13 / 100

In alphabetical series how many such a vowel which is immediately preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a consonant?

नीचे दी गई वर्णमाला श्रृंखला में ऐसे कितने स्‍वर हैं जिनके ठीक पहले एक स्‍वर और ठीक बाद में एक व्‍यंजन है?

G P O E C I A T N U E O X

14 / 100

A sudden fall of mercury in a barometer indicates

एक बैरोमीटर में पारे में अचानक गिरावट निम्न में से किसका संकेत करती है?

15 / 100

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

https://gradeup-question-images.grdp.co/liveData/PROJ41409/1575455842285949.jpg

  1. 2) 3) 4)

16 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

JAM, EVH, ZQC, ULX, PGS, ?

17 / 100

Who coined the slogan ‘Quit India’?

‘‘भारत छोड़ों” का नारा किसने दिया था?

18 / 100

Which of the following jumbled word is not an electronic item?
निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा अव्‍यवस्‍थित शब्‍द एक इलेक्ट्रॉनिक आइटम नहीं है?

19 / 100

ΔXYZ is right angled at Y. If ∠Z = 60 °, then Cosec X =

ΔXYZ,Y पर समकोण है | यदि m∠Z = 60 ° है, तो Cosec X =?

20 / 100

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

दी गई उत्तर आकृतियों में से उस उत्तर आकृति को चुनिए जिस में प्रश्न आकृति निहित है|

Question Figure :

Answer Figure :

21 / 100

“ Arabica” is the variety of ______?

“अरेबिका” ______ की क़िस्म है?

22 / 100

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number.

4 : 48 : : 11 : ? : : 5 : 100

23 / 100

Dog’ is related to ‘Kennel’ in the same way ‘Bee’ is related to ___ ?

24 / 100

Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?

क्रिकेट के खेल में निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द का प्रयोग होता है ?

25 / 100

Air pollution level is considered to be Satisfactory if Air Quality index between

वायु प्रदूषण का स्‍तर संतोषजनक माना जाता है यदि वायु गुणवत्‍ता सूचकांक होता है-

26 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|
CAE, FDH, IGK, ?

27 / 100

Head Quarters of U.N.O. is in_______.

U.N.O. का मुख्‍यालय कहां स्‍थित है?

28 / 100

Find the odd one out from the given figure.

नीचे दी गई आकृतियों में से विषम आकृति की पहचान करें।

1) 2) 3) 4)

29 / 100

In the first 35 overs of a cricket match, the run rate was 4.2 runs/over. Calculate the required run rate in the remaining 15 overs to reach the target of 267 runs?

एक क्रिकेट मैच के पहले 35 ओवर में रन रेट 4.2 रन/ओवर था | शेष 15 ओवरों में 267 रन के लक्ष्य तक पहुँचने के लिए अपेक्षित रन रेट क्या होगा?

30 / 100

Find the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 5.20?

5:20 बजे मिनट वाली सुई और घंटे वाली सुई के बीच कोण ज्ञात करें?

31 / 100

Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest

32 / 100

In a certain code language ABSOLUTE is written as ESBLOTUA. How will CALENDAR be written in that code language?

किसी कूट भाषा में ABSOLUTE को ESBLOTUA लिखा जाता है, तो उसी कूट भाषा में CALENDAR को किस प्रकार लिखा जाएगा?

33 / 100

Student’s strength of a college in Arts. Science and Commerce from 2004 – 05 to 2007 – 08 sessions are shown in the following bar graph. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of number of students in Arts to the number of students in Commerce is

कला में छात्रों की औसत संख्या और वाणिज्य में छात्रों की औसत संख्या का अनुपात कितना है?

34 / 100

RailWire Wi-Fi zone is an initiative of which entity?

रेलवायर वाई-फाई जोन किस इकाई की एक पहल है?

35 / 100

In Bajaj motorcycle showroom, the cost price of two motorcycles is same. If one is sold at a profit of 12.5% and the other for Rs.4000 more than the first. If the net profit is 22.5%. Find the cost price of each motorcycle.

बजाज मोटरसाइकिल के शोरूम में, दो मोटरसाइकिलों का लागत मूल्‍य समान है। यदि एक मोटरसाइकिल को 12.5% के लाभ पर और दूसरी को पहली से 4000 रुपये अधिक में बेचा जाता है। यदि शुद्ध लाभ 22.5% है तो प्रत्‍येक मोटरसाइकिल का लागत मूल्‍य बताइए?

36 / 100

In a code language, CHICAGO is written as IHCAOGA. How will BEIJING be written in that language?

37 / 100

Animals in which the cells are arranged in three embryonic layers are called ________.

जिन प्राणियों में कोशिकाएं तीन भ्रूणीय स्तरों में व्यवस्थित होती हैं, उन्हें _________ कहते हैं |

38 / 100

Posting a photograph on Facebook, Deepika said “her mother’s brother is the only son of my father’s father”. How photograph girl’s mother related to Deepika?

फेसबुक पर एक तस्वीर पोस्ट करते हुए दीपिका कहती है, “उनकी मां का भाई मेरे पिता के पिता का एकमात्र पुत्र है”। तस्वीर वाली लड़की की मां दीपिका से किस प्रकार संबंधित है?

39 / 100

In the following question select the odd word from the given alternatives.

40 / 100

Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was______.

भोपाल त्रासदी के दौरान कौन-सी गैस निकली थी?

41 / 100

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure:

1) 2) 3) 4) 

42 / 100

Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

‘A$B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
‘A%B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
‘A&B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
‘A@B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
In the expression ‘M @ N & S $ Q’, how is M related to S?

43 / 100

Which of the following jumbled word is not a root vegetable?

निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा अव्‍यवस्‍थित शब्‍द एक कंद मूल नहीं है?

44 / 100

For human blood transfusion, which blood group is known as universal donor?

मानव रक्तदान के लिए कौन सा रक्त समूह सार्वत्रिक दाता (यूनिवर्सल डोनर) होता है ?

45 / 100

If we take a two digit number and divide it into two unequal parts we find that the difference between the squares of these two parts is equal to sixty times the difference between these two unequal parts. Find the sum of numbers.

यदि हम दो अंको की एक संख्या लेते हैं उसे दो असमान भागों में विभाजित, हमें ज्ञात होता हैं कि इन दो भागों के वर्गों के बीच का अंतर इन दो असमान भागों के बीच के अंतर के 60 गुना के बराबर होता हैं। संख्याओं का योग ज्ञात करिये।

46 / 100

In the following question, some statements followed by some conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements.

Statements :
1. 
All Mouse are Monitor.
2. 
All Monitor are UPS.
3. 
All UPS are CPU.
Conclusions:-
I. 
Some CPU are Mouse.
II. 
Some CPU are UPS.

47 / 100

When a number is divided by 24, the remainder is 16. The remainder when the same number is divided by 12 is

जब किसी संख्या को 24 से विभाजित किया जाता है, तो शेष 16 प्राप्त होता है| जब उसी संख्या को 12 से विभाजित किया जाये, तो शेष क्या होगा?

48 / 100

In the given four answer figures choose one which resembles the figure formed when the sheet is folded along the dotted line.

49 / 100

Money can be transferred using mobile phones through the service called

मोबाइल की सहायता से किस सेवा का प्रयोग करके धन हस्‍तांतरण किया जा सकता है-

50 / 100

Which law of motion will apply while swimming?

तैराकी करते समय गति का कौन सा नियम लागू होगा?

51 / 100

From four corners of a square sheet of side 8 cm, four pieces, each in the shape of arc of a circle with radius 3 cm, are cut out. The area of remaining portion is :

अगर एक वर्ग, जिसकी भुजा, 8 सेंटीमीटर है, उसके चारों कोनों से, चार वृतांश काटे गए, और उन्हें 3 सेंटीमीटर, त्रिज्या वाले वृत के आकार में बनाया गया। ज्ञात कीजिये कि बचे हुए भाग का क्षेत्रफल क्या होगा?

52 / 100

How many such digits are there in the number 27561493 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number?

संख्या 27561493 में ऐसे कितने अंक हैं जिनमें से प्रत्येक अंक संख्या के आरंभ से उतना ही दूर है जितना दूर वह संख्या में अंकों को अवरोही क्रम में लगाने पर होगा ?

53 / 100

Which of the following micro-organism causes diseases like polio and chicken pox?

निम्नलिखित मी से कौन से सुक्ष्मजीवी पोलियो तथा चेचक (चिकन पॉक्स) जैसी गंभीर बीमारीयों के कारण है?

54 / 100

Sullage water is ___________

अपशिष्ट (सलेज ) जल क्या है ?

55 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|
78, 155, 309, ? , 1233

56 / 100

In the following question, find the missing number from the given options.

57 / 100

How many triangles are in the given diagram?

58 / 100

The Battle of Khanwa was fought in ____.

खानवा की लड़ाई ____ में लड़ी गई थी।

59 / 100

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

60 / 100

Select the option that will come next in the given series.

  1. 2) 3) 4)

61 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|
826, 480, 346, 134,?

62 / 100

If ‘a’ means ‘ multiplication’ , ‘b’ means ‘plus’ , ‘c’ means ‘ division’ and ‘d’ means ‘ minus’ then

14 a 18 b 16 d 42 c 6

63 / 100

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

कागज के एक टुकड़े को नीचे दी गई प्रश्‍न आकृति की तरह मोड़कर इसे पंच किया जाता है। दी गई उत्‍तर आकृति से, पहचाने कि कागज खोले जाने पर कैसा प्रतीत होगा?

1)  2) 3) 4)

64 / 100

Three positions of the same dice are given. Which number will be at the bottom if ‘6′ is at the top?

65 / 100

Champaran Indigo Movement was launched in which state?

चंपारण नील आंदोलन किस राज्य में शुरू किया गया था?

66 / 100

What is the LCM of 64 and 56?

64 और 56 का लघुतम समापवर्तक क्या है?

67 / 100

In a qualitative way, the tendency of undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to keep moving with the same velocity is called _________.

गुणात्मक रूप में किसी वस्तु के विरामाव्स्था में रहने या समान वेग से गतिशील रहने की प्रवृत्ति को _________ कहते हैं |

68 / 100

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

69 / 100

Select the letter combination that is placed sequentially on the blank spaces of the letter series given below to complete the given series.

_xy_ _x_ zyxy_

70 / 100

The Gurudwara ‘Panja Sahib’ is located in which neighbouring country of India?

गुरुद्वारा ‘पंजा साहिब’, भारत के किस पडोसी देश में स्थित है?

71 / 100

If two pipes A and B are such that, they can fill a large tub in 20 and 16 minutes respectively. They are opened on alternate minutes (A is opened first), find the approximate time in which the tube will completely full (approximate)?

यदि दो पाइप A एवं B इस प्रकार हैं कि, वे एक बड़े टब को क्रमशः 20 एवं 16 मिनट में भर सकते हैं| यदि उन्हें एक दुसरे के बाद एक एक मिनट के अंतरालो में खोला गया हो(A को सबसे पहले खोला गया), तो वह लगभग समय ज्ञात कीजिये, जिसमे टब पूरी तरह भर जाए?

72 / 100

Who out of the following had told ” Destruction is the best method of dealing with the foreign clothes” ?

निम्न में से किसने कहा था “विदेशी कपड़ों का विनाश ही ब्रिटिश लोगों से निपटने का सबसे अच्छा तरीका है” ?

73 / 100

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure ?

यदि रेखा MN पर एक दर्पण रखा जाए, तो निम्‍नलिखित उत्‍तर आकृतियों में से कौन सी आकृति दी गई प्रश्‍न आकृति का सही दर्पण प्रतिबिंब होगी?

1) 2)3)4)

74 / 100

If TIGER = BLACK and LION = PLUM, then LITTERING = ?

यदि TIGER = BLACK और LION = PLUM है, तो LITTERING = ? ज्ञात करें।

75 / 100

What are the two kinds of Rotatory motion?

घूर्णन गति के दो प्रकार कौन से हैं?

76 / 100

In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two numbers.

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में, किन्ही दो संख्याओं को आपस में परस्पर बदलकर दिए गए समीकरण को सही कीजिए |

3 – 4 + 12 × 6 ÷ 8 = 28

77 / 100

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

दी गई आकृति में कितने त्रिभुज हैं?

78 / 100

Baron Jons Jacob Berzelius discovered which of following?

बैरन जोन्स जैकब बेर्ज़ेलियस ने किस की खोज की थी?

79 / 100

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

i. Garbage
ii. Garrulous
iii. Gabber
iv. Garble

80 / 100

The age of the earth can be estimated by?

पृथ्वी की आयु का अंदाज़ा ……………..से लगाया जो सकता है।

81 / 100

The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called __________.

विधुत द्वारा किसी पदार्थ पर किसी वांछित धातु की परत निक्षेपित करने को प्रक्रिया को क्या कहते हैं?

82 / 100

Who has been appointed as the new Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court?

बॉम्बे उच्च न्यायालय के नए मुख्य न्यायाधीश के रूप में किसे नियुक्त किया गया है?

83 / 100

Amphibians and reptiles have _____ heart.

उभयचर और सरीसृपों में _____ हृदय है।

84 / 100

The ratio of present ages of Rambha and Sarvesh is 8:5. After 7 years the ratio of their ages will be 5:4. What is Rambha’s present age?

रम्भा और सर्वेश की वर्तमान आयु का अनुपात 8:5है | 7 वर्षों बाद उनकी आयु का अनुपात 5:4 होगा | रम्भा की वर्तमान आयु कितनी है?

85 / 100

Out of six consecutive natural numbers, if the sum of first three is 27, what is the sum of the other three?

छः लगातार आने वाली प्राकृत संख्याओं में से यदि पहली तीन का योगफल 27 है, तो दूसरी तीन का योगफल क्या होगा?

86 / 100

Piyush, Nirav and Rohit started a business with investment of Rs.10, 000, Rs.15, 000 and Rs.20, 000 respectively. At the end of the year the share of Rohit in the profit was Rs.5, 000. Find the difference between the share of Piyush and Nirav in the profit?

पियूष, नीरव और रोहित ने क्रमशः 10,000 रुपये, 15,000 रुपये और 20,000 रुपये के निवेश के साथ एक व्यापार शुरु किया। वर्ष के अंत में, लाभ में रोहित का हिस्सा 5,000 रुपये था। लाभ में पियूष और नीरव के हिस्सों में अंतर ज्ञात कीजिए?

87 / 100

The 46th Session of the Council of Foreign Ministers of the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) was held in which city?

इस्लामिक सहयोग संगठन (OIC) की विदेश मंत्री परिषद का 46वां सत्र किस शहर में आयोजित किया गया था?

88 / 100

A and B together do a job in 12 days and A could do the job in 20 days if he worked alone. How many days would B take to do the job if he worked alone?

A और B एक साथ मिलकर 12 दिनों में कोई काम करते हैं और A अकेले काम करते हुए उसे 20 दिन में पूरा कर सकता है | अगर B ने अकेले काम किया होता तो उसे काम करने में कितने दिन लगते?

89 / 100

Four pairs of words are given. Find the odd one out.

शब्‍दों के चार युग्‍म दिए गए हैं। इनमें से असंगत युग्‍म की पहचान करें।

90 / 100

What is the currency of Philipines?

फिलीपींस की मुद्रा क्या है?

91 / 100

Kuttauad (or Kuttanadu) in Kerala is famous for

केरल में कुट्टौड (या कुट्टनु) ………………… के लिए प्रसिद्ध है ?

92 / 100

Velocity of sound in a liquid depends on?

द्रव में ध्वनि का वेग किस पर निर्भर करता है ?

93 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Asia, Africa, North America, ?

एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|

एशिया, अफ्रीका, उत्तरी अमेरिका, ?

94 / 100

Which elements are paired correctly with these chemical symbols? Ca, C, Cl, Co?

Ca, C, Cl, Co रासायनिक प्रतीकों के साथ कौनसे तत्व सही जोड़े में हैं?

95 / 100

The value of is

का मान है

96 / 100

Blotting paper absorbs ink due to

ब्‍लॉटिंग पेपर किसके कारण स्‍याही अवशोषित करता है-

97 / 100

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों में से संबंधित संख्या को चुनिए|
ANT : 35 :: HEN : ?

98 / 100

In the given figure, which number represents Samsung, Oneplus and Nokia but not iPhone.

नीचे दिए गए चित्र में, कौन सी संख्‍या सैमसंग, वनप्‍लस और नोकिया फोन का उपयोग करने वालों को दर्शाती है लेकिन आइफोन उपयोग करने वालों को नहीं दर्शाती है।

99 / 100

Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करेगा।
a_c_a_cb_ccb

100 / 100

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
निम्नलिखित शब्दों को शब्दकोश में आने वाले क्रम के अनुसार लिखें।
1) Opperate
2) Oyster
3) Oracle
4) Otis
5) Official

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Group D Test 1

Group D Test 1

1 / 100

Soap helps in cleaning clothes, because______.

साबुन कपड़े को साफ करने में मदद करता है, क्योंकि_____.

2 / 100

What is India’s ranking in Gold Reserve as per the World Gold Council report 2019?

विश्व स्वर्ण परिषद की रिपोर्ट 2019 के अनुसार, गोल्ड रिजर्व में भारत की रैंकिंग क्या है?

3 / 100

A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days while A alone can do the same work in 30 days. B alone can do it in:

A और B किसी काम को मिलकर 12 दिन में कर सकते हैं जबकि A अकेला उसी काम को 30 दिन में कर सकता है | B अकेले उसी काम को कितने दिन में कर सकता है?

4 / 100

In the series given below, calculate the difference between first and third prime numbers from the left end.

नीचे दी गई श्रृंखला में, बाएं ओर से पहली और तीसरी अभाज्‍य संख्‍या के बीच अन्‍तर ज्ञात कीजिये
7 13 4 11 10 23 7 8 13 19 23 8 19 18

5 / 100

Arrange the following rays in increasing order of their penetrating power?

निम्न किरणों को उनकी भेदन क्षमता के आधार पर आरोही क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें?

6 / 100

Which among the following is the oldest part of India?

निम्न में से कौन सा भारत का सबसे पुराना हिस्सा है?

7 / 100

The edges of a rectangular box are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and its total surface area is 88 cm2, The volume of the box is

एक आयताकार बक्से की भुजाएँ 1 : 2 : 3 के अनुपात में हैं और उसका संपूर्ण पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल 88 सेमी2 है। तदनुसार उस बक्से का आयतन कितना है?

8 / 100

Which mineral is the ore of aluminium?

कौन-सा खनिज एलुमिनियम का अयस्क है?

9 / 100

The price of an article is cut by 3%. To restore to its original value, the new price must be increased by

एक वस्तु की कीमत में 3% की छूट दी जाती है| वास्तविक मूल्य को पुनः निर्धारित करने के लिए कितने प्रतिशत से वृद्धि करनी चाहिए?

10 / 100

Why does a fountain pen leak in aeroplane flying at a height?

अधिक ऊँचाई पर उड़ने वाले हवाई जहाज में स्याही वाले पैन लीक क्यों करते हैं?

11 / 100

Which is the largest prison in India?

भारत की सबसे बड़ी जेल कौन सी है?

12 / 100

Which chromosomal combination is responsible for maleness in man?

पुरूष के पुरूषत्व के लिए कौन-सा गुणसूत्री संयोजन उत्तरदायी हैं?

13 / 100

Who took the title of “Alamgir” in Mughal India?

मुगल इंडिया में “आलमगीर” की उपाधि किसने ली?

14 / 100

The most abundant constituent of atmospheric air is ______.

वायुमंडलीय हवा में सबसे प्रचुर घटक______ हैl

15 / 100

Direction: A statement is given followed by two inferences numbered I and II. Consider the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: According to the Composite Water Management Index developed by Niti Aayog, 70% of the water resources in India are identified as polluted.

Inferences:
I. India is facing an acute water crisis and urgent reforms are needed to deal with the situation.
II. Two areas that need urgent measures are the augmentation of watersheds that can store good water, for use in agriculture and to serve habitations, and strict pollution control enforcement.

कथन: नीति आयोग द्वारा विकसित समग्र जल प्रबंधन सूचकांक के अनुसार, भारत में 70% जल संसाधन प्रदूषित हैं।

संदर्भ:
I. भारत को गंभीर जल संकट का सामना करना पड़ रहा है और स्थिति से निपटने के लिए तत्काल सुधार की आवश्‍यकता है।
II. दो क्षेत्रों को तत्काल उपायों की आवश्यकता है जो वाटरशेड का संवर्धन करे और कृषि में उपयोग के लिए और निवासियों की सेवा के लिए, और सख्त प्रदूषण नियंत्रण प्रवर्तन हेतु स्वच्छ पानी का भंडारण कर सके।

16 / 100

What is the approx value of one US Dollar in Indian rupees?

भारतीय रुपये में एक अमेरिकी डॉलर का अनुमानित मूल्य क्या है?

17 / 100

The sum of the digits of a 2 ­digit number is 17. If we add 9 to the number, the new number obtained is a number formed by interchange of the digits. Find the number.

दो अंकों की एक संख्या के अंकों का योग 17 है | यदि इस संख्या में 9 जोड़ा जाता है, तो प्राप्त नई संख्या पहली संख्या के अंकों का उल्टा क्रम होती है | संख्या ज्ञात करें ?

18 / 100

The upper and lower portion in common type of bi-focal lenses are respectively______.

सामान्य प्रकार के द्विफोकसी लेन्सों के ऊपरी तथा निचले भाग क्रमश: ______l

19 / 100

AB and CD are two parallel lines. The points B and C are joined such that A line CE is drawn making angle of 35 ° with the line is drawn parallel to as shown in figure, then is equal to

AB औरCD दो सामानांतर रेखाए है. बिंदु B औरC इस प्रकार जुड़े है की एक रेखाCE को इस तरह खीचा जाता है की वह रेखा CB के साथ 35 ° का कोण बनाती है। रेखा EF को चित्र में दिखाए अनुसार AB के सामानांतर खीचा जाता है। किसके बराबर होगा?

20 / 100

Nine students of a class contribute a certain sum of money. Seven of them gave Rs. 50 each and the other two gave respectively Rs. 50 and Rs. 90 more than the others. The average contribution of all students.

किसी कक्षा के 9 छात्र कुछ राशि का योगदान करते हैं| उनमें से 7 छात्रों में से प्रत्येक 50 रुपये का योगदान देता है और अन्य दो अन्य छात्रों द्वारा दिए गए औसत योगदान से क्रमशः  50 रुपये और  90 रुपये अधिक देते हैं| कक्षा के सभी छात्रों का औसत योगदान बताइए?

21 / 100

The cause of temporary hardness of water is_______.

पानी की अस्थायी कठोरता का कारण क्या है?

22 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|
AK, CO, ES, ?

23 / 100

The renowned Temple at Ranakpur is a _______ Temple.

रणकपुर में स्थित प्रसिद्ध मंदिर एक ______ मंदिर है |

24 / 100

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों में से लुप्त अंक ज्ञात कीजिये|

25 / 100

Banking of roads is an example of?

बैंकिंग ऑफ़ रोड ________ का उदाहरण है।

26 / 100

Chemical formula of Ethylene is ___________.

ईथीलीन का रासायनिक सूत्र __ हैl

27 / 100

For pasteurization of milk by Flash method, milk is heated to a temperature of_____.

फ्लैश विधि द्वारा दूध की क्रीम के लिए, दूध को ………………………. तापमान तक गर्म किया जाता हैl

28 / 100

Which state’s capital has been awarded with cleanliest capital under Swachh Survekshan Awards 2019?

स्वच्छ सर्वेक्षण पुरस्कार 2019 के तहत किस राज्य की राजधानी को सबसे स्वच्छ राजधानी से सम्मानित किया गया है?

29 / 100

Which of the following company is official sponsor of ICC World Cup 2019?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी कंपनी आईसीसी विश्व कप 2019 की आधिकारिक प्रायोजक है?

30 / 100

Which of the following is maximum number of 4 digit that is exactly divisible by 12, 15, 18, 27?

4 अंकों की वह बड़ी से बड़ी संख्‍या कौन सी होगी जो 12, 15, 18, 27 से पूर्णत: विभाजित होगी?

31 / 100

If DEVELOPMENT is written as 45853106572, how ENVELOPE can be written in that code?

यदि किसी कोड में DEVELOPMENT को 45853106572 लिखा जाता है, तो उसी कोड में ENVELOPE को कैसे लिखा जाएगा?

32 / 100

The ratio of present ages of X and Y is 3:5. 10 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 7:13. What is Y’s present age (in years)?

X और Y की वर्तमान आयु का अनुपात 3:5 है| 10 वर्ष पहले उनकी आयु का अनुपात 7:13 था. Y की वर्तमान आयु है (वर्षों में)?

33 / 100

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

https://gs-post-images.grdp.co/2019/12/8utyl09-img1576583336915-63.png-rs-high-webp.png

34 / 100

The sweet taste of fruits is due to______.

फलों का मधुर/मीठा स्वाद किसके कारण होता है?

35 / 100

Who has been appointed as new Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)?

भाभा परमाणु अनुसंधान केंद्र (BARC) के नए निदेशक के रूप में किसे नियुक्त किया गया है?

36 / 100

The area of a trapezium is 105 sq. m and, the lengths of its parallel sides are 9 m and 12 m respectively. Then the height of the trapezium is

एक समलंब का क्षेत्रफल 105 वर्ग मीटर है और उसकी समांतर भुजाओं की लम्बाइयाँ क्रमश: 9 मीटर तथा 12 मीटर हैं। तदनुसार, उस समलम्ब की ऊंचाई कितनी हेागी?

37 / 100

Who coined the term ‘gene’?

पद ‘जीन’ किसने बनाया था?

38 / 100

Direction: In question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some keys are locks.
All locks are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some locks are keys.
II. Atleast some windows are keys.
कथन:
कुछ चाबी ताले हैं।
सभी ताले दरवाजे हैं।
सभी दरवाजे खिड़कियां हैं।
निष्कर्ष:
I. कुछ ताले चाबी हैं।
II. कम से कम कुछ खिड़कियाँ चाबी हैं।

39 / 100

A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

एक अनुक्रम दिया है, जिसमें से एक शब्द लुप्त है | दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही विकल्प चुनिए जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे |

Good, Odour, Urban, Anthem, ?

40 / 100

A powerful eye irritant present in smog is________.

धूम कुहरा (smog) में मौजूद आँख में जलन पैदा करने वाला एक शक्तिशाली द्रव्य_________ हैl

41 / 100

Simple Interest received by a person in 10 years on a principal of Rs 9500 is 130% of the principal. What is the rate of interest (in %) per annum?

एक व्यक्ति ने 10 वर्षों में 9500 रुपये के मूलधन का 130% साधारण ब्याज प्राप्त किया है| ब्याज की वार्षिक दर (% में) क्या है?

42 / 100

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

43 / 100

When a number is divided by 121, the remainder is 25. If the same number is divided by 11, the remainder will be

जब एक संख्या को 121 से भाग दिया जाता है तो शेषफल 25 आता है। यदि उसी संख्या को 11 से भाग दे तो शेषफल क्या होगा?

44 / 100

If then the value of k is

45 / 100

The Great Himalayan National Park is located in which state of India?

ग्रेट हिमालयन राष्‍ट्रीय उद्यान भारत के किस राज्‍य में स्थित है?

46 / 100

Who is the current President of India?

भारत का वर्तमान राष्ट्रपति कौन है?

47 / 100

Branch of Biology deals with extinct organisms______.

जीव विज्ञान की कौन सी शाखा का सम्बन्ध विलुप्त जीवों से है?

48 / 100

Place the appropriate mathematical operations is the blank space to get the answer. All calculations are to be made from left to right.

उपयुक्त गणतीय संक्रियाओं को रिक्त स्थानों पर स्थापित कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर प्राप्त करें| सभी गणनाएं बाएं से दाएं की ओर की जाएंगी|

49 / 100

The smallest number to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly, is

1000 में छोटी संख्या जोड़ी जाती है और उसको 45 से विभजित कर दिया जाता है ,वो नंबर क्या होगा

50 / 100

What is the literacy rate according to the Census 2011?

जनगणना 2011के अनुसार  साक्षरता दर क्या है?

51 / 100

In the following question, select the missing number/letters from the given responses.

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों में से लुप्त संख्या/अक्षर का चयन करें।

3 + 9 = 31
15 + 12 = 45
18 + 9 = 36
12 + 27 = ?

52 / 100

Who developed the theory of relativity?

सापेक्षता का सिद्वांत किसने विकसित किया था?

53 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|

?, 5, 30, 186, 1309, 10480

54 / 100

Which organ in the human body is affected by Emphysema?

55 / 100

Which non-metal is lustrous?

कौन सी अधातु चमकदार होती है?

56 / 100

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

57 / 100

The average mark secured by 36 students was 52. But it was discovered that an item 64 was misread as 46. What is the correct mean of marks?

36 विद्यार्थियों को औसतन 52 अंक प्राप्त हुए। किंतु बाद में पता चला कि पद 64 को गलती से 46 पढ़ा गया। अंकों का सही माध्य क्या होगा?

58 / 100

In a triangle PQR, PQ = PR and ∠Q is twice that of ∠P. Then ∠Q is equal to

एक त्रिभुज PQR में, PQ= PR और  से दोगुना है| तो  किसके बराबर है?

59 / 100

When a running car stops suddenly, the passengers tends to lean forward because of _______.

जब कोई दौड़ती हुई कार अचानक रूक जाती है, तो यात्री आगे की ओर क्यों झुक जाते हैं?

60 / 100

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

61 / 100

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

निम्नलिखित शब्दों को शब्दकोष में आने वाले क्रम के अनुसार लिखें|

1) Zomato
2) Zomine
3) Zebra
4) Zero
5) Zendo

62 / 100

Direction: In each of the following question, a statement is followed by two course of action. A course of action is taken for redressal, follow up, etc. Read the statement carefully and answer.

Statement:
A recent study revealed that 80% of the children in rural India are illiterate.
Course of Action:
I. Education should be made compulsory for all the children up to 14 years of age.
II. Employment of children below the age of 14 should be banned.
कथन:
एक हाल के अध्‍ययन से पता चला है कि ग्रामीण भारत में 80%बच्‍चे निरक्षर हैं।

कार्यवाही:

I. 14वर्ष तक के बच्‍चों के लिये शिक्षा अनिवार्य करनी चाहिए।
II. 14वर्ष से कम आयु के बच्‍चों के रोजगार पर प्रतिबंध लगा दिया जाना चाहिए।

63 / 100

What is the nickname of Milkha Singh?

मिल्खा सिंह का उपनाम क्या है?

64 / 100

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

एक अनुक्रम दिया गया है, जिसमें से एक पद लुप्त है| दिए गए विकल्पों में से वह सही विकल्प चुनिए, जो अनुक्रम को पूरा करे|
A, D, I, AF, BE, CF, ?

65 / 100

Excess amount of absorbed water by plants is liberated out by _______.

पादपों द्वारा अवशोषित जल का अतिरिक्त अंश किसके द्वारा बाहर निकाला जाता है?

66 / 100

While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount of 5%. If he gives a discount of 7%, he earns ₹ 15 less as profit. The market price of the watch is

एक दुकानदार घड़ी बेचते समय 5% की छूट देता है| यदि वह 7% की छूट देता है तो वह लाभ के रूप में ₹ 15 कम कमाता है| घड़ी का अंकित मूल्य क्या है?

67 / 100

The gas used to dilute oxygen for breathing by deep sea divers is______.

गहरे समुद्री गोताखोरों के श्वसन हेतु जलमिश्रित ऑक्सीजन के लिए किस गैस का प्रयोग किया जाता है?

68 / 100

A train covers a certain distance in 210 minutes at a speed of 60 kmph. The time taken by the train, to cover the same distance at a speed of 80 kmph is :

एक गाड़ी 60 किमी/घंटा की गति से एक विशिष्ट दूरी 210 मिनट में तय करती है। 80 किमी/ घंटा की गति से वही दूरी तय करने में गाड़ी को लगने वाला समय है:

69 / 100

AL Nagah 2019 was conducted between India and which country?

अल नगाह 2019 युद्धाभ्यास भारत और किस देश के बीच आयोजित किया गया था?

70 / 100

NASA refers to_______.

नासा का पूरा नाम ______ हैl

71 / 100

By selling an article for Rs. 480 a person lost 20%. For what should he sell it to make a profit of 20%?

एक वस्तु को 480₹ में बेचने पर एक व्यक्ति को 20% की हानि होती है। 20% लाभ कमाने के लिए उसे वस्तु को किस मूल्य पर बेचना चाहिए?

72 / 100

Mumps is a viral disease that inflammation of _______.

गलसुआ (मम्प्स) एक वायरल रोग है जो ______ में सूजन पैदा करता हैl

73 / 100

Renu introduces a girl as “She is the granddaughter of the man who is the grandfather of the wife of my grandfather”. How Renu related to the girl?

रेनू ने एक लड़की का परिचय देते हुए कहा, ‘वह उस आदमी की ग्रैंडडौटर है जो मेरे ग्रैंडफादर की पत्‍नी के ग्रैंडफादर हैं’। रेनू उस लड़की से किस प्रकार संबंधित है?

74 / 100

India shares its least international boundary with which country?

भारत अपनी अन्तराष्ट्रीय सीमा सबसे कम किस देश से साझा करता है?

75 / 100

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों में से लुप्त अंक ज्ञात कीजिये|

76 / 100

If in a certain code, 1925 is written as ACE and 36116 is written as FAD, the how will DIE be written in that code?

किसी निश्‍चित कोड भाषा में 1925 को ACE और 36116 को FAD लिखा जाता है तो उसी कोड भाषा में DIE को क्‍या लिखा जायेगा?

77 / 100

97.5% of 4888 – 562 × 5 = ? % of 520

78 / 100

Riya is the aunt of Rohan who is a male. Riya’s father is Chintu. Raju is Chintu’s father. Raju’s wife is Mamta. Anu is the father-in-law of Mamta. How is Riya related to Anu?

रिया, रोहन की आंटी है जो एक पुरुष है। रिया के पिता चिंटू हैं। राजू चिंटू का पिता है। राजू की पत्‍नी ममता है। अनू ममता का ससुर है। रिया अनू से किस प्रकार संबंधित है?

79 / 100

12 pumps working 6 hrs a day can empty a completely filled reservoir in 15 days. How many such pumps working 9 hrs a day will empty the same reservoir in 12 days?

दिन में 6 घंटे काम करने वाले 12 पंप 15 दिनों में पूरी तरह से भरे जलाशय को खाली कर सकते हैं। दिन में 9 घंटे काम करने वाले कितने पंप 12 दिनों में ही जलाशय को खाली कर देंगे?

80 / 100

If a sum of money is to be divided among A,B and C such that A’s share is equal to twice B’s share and B’s share is 4 times C’s share, then their shares are in the ratio

एक धन को A, B और C में इस प्रकार बाटना है की A का भाग, B के भाग का दुगना हो तथा B का भाग, C के भाग का चार गुना हो। इस प्रकार उनको प्राप्त होने वाला धन किस अनुपात में होगा?

81 / 100

Who wrote the line: ‘ A thing of beauty is a joy forever’?

‘ ए थिंग ऑफ़ ब्यूटी इज अ जॉय फॉरएवर’: पंक्ति किसने लिखी है?

82 / 100

The larvae of cockroach is called______.

कॉकरोच (तिलचट्टा) का लार्वा ______कहा जाता हैl

83 / 100

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

निम्‍नलिखित प्रश्‍न में, दिए गए विकल्‍पों की सहायता से लुप्‍त संख्‍या ज्ञात करें?

84 / 100

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों में से विषम शब्द को चुनिए|

85 / 100

A man travels of the total journey by rail, by car and the remaining 10 km on foot. His total journey in km is

एक व्यक्ति, अपनी कुल यात्रा का  भाग रेल द्वारा भाग कार द्वारा और शेष 10 किलोमीटर पैदल चलकर पूरी कर लेता है। तदनुसार उसकी कुल यात्रा कितने किलोमीटर की है?

86 / 100

Ravi walks 3 meters towards the east, then turns to his right and walks 4 meters and then turns to his left and walks 2 meters. Again turning to his left he walks 4 meters. In which direction is he now from his initial point and what is the shortest distance from his starting point to his final point?

रवि पूर्व की ओर 3 मीटर चलता है, फिर अपने दाएं मुड़ता है और 4 मीटर चलता है, इसके बाद अपने बाईं ओर मुड़ता है और 2 मीटर चलता है। पुन: अपने बाईं ओर मुड़कर 4 मीटर चलता है। वह अब अपनी प्रारंभिक बिंदु से किस दिशा में है और प्रारंभिक बिंदु से उसकी न्‍यूनतम दूरी ज्ञात करें?

87 / 100

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

119 : 10 :: 476 : ?

88 / 100

Find the odd one out from the given figures.

89 / 100

‘India Gate’ is situated in ____.

इंडिया गेट कहाँ स्थित है?

90 / 100

Which of the following statements is true?

निम्न में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है?

91 / 100

Patanjali is well-known for the compilation of_____

पतंजलि _____ के संकलन के लिए प्रसिद्ध है

Solution:

92 / 100

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

93 / 100

Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय ओलम्पिक कमिटी का मुख्यालय कहाँ स्थित है?

94 / 100

10 times of 7/11 of 60% of 345 =?

345 के 60% का 7/11 का 10 गुणा =?

95 / 100

In the given figure, which number represents only Kanpur and Bhopal?


दी गई आकृति में, कौन सी संख्‍या सिर्फ़ कानपुर और भोपाल को दर्शाती है
?

96 / 100

If it is possible to make a meaningful word, using the 2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th letters of the word ‘TEMPLATE’, then what is the third letter of the word formed? If no such word can be formed, mark the answer as ‘Y’. If more than one word can be formed, mark the answer as ‘X’.

यदि शब्‍द ‘TEMPLATE’ के दूसरे, चौथे, छठे और आठवें अक्षर का उपयोग करके सार्थक शब्द बनाना संभव है, तो बनाए गए शब्द का तीसरा अक्षर क्या है? यदि ऐसा कोई शब्द नहीं बनाया जा सकता है, तो ‘Y’ को उत्तर के रूप में चिन्हित करें। यदि एक से अधिक शब्द बनाए जा सकते हैं तो ‘X’ को उत्तर के रूप में चिन्हित करें।

97 / 100

Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
नीचे दी गई जानकारी का ध्‍यानपूर्वक अध्‍ययन करें तथा इसके आधार पर प्रश्‍नों के उत्‍तर दें।
M 5 1 % D R # J * F E N 3 A @ H I © W B P U 8 $ 2 Q V 4
Which of the following is the 5th to the left of the 18th from the left end of the above arrangement?
निम्‍न में से कौन सा उपरोक्त व्यवस्था के बाएं छोर से 18वें नंबर के बाएं से 5वें स्‍थान पर है?

98 / 100

Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint ______.

पेंट में क्रोमियम ऑक्साइड, पेंट का कौन सा रंग बनाता है?

99 / 100

Daily ticket of a local train costs Rs 140 and Monthly